Coefficient Quartile of Variation (CQV) to see how wide our pricing data is

Muchid Ariyanto
2 min readSep 12, 2021

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  • Do sales in Jakarta have any similarities between one sale and another?
  • Will our customers prefer to buy a product at the same price over and over again?
  • How different are the prices that we display on a product recommendation in one section?
  • Etc.

In general, we usually use the standard deviation or variance to determine how wide or spread out our data is, where the closer the deviation is to 0 the data we have will be closer to our average value.

However, the standard deviation and variation will be affected by the outlier value.

  • A high deviation is likely to have an upper outlier, on the contrary
  • The low deviation may be influenced by the presence of lower outliers.

Therefore, in this article, I will introduce one of the values to determine a deviation provided that this value will not be affected by outliers, or in other words it will be more robust.

Formula of Coefficient Quartile of Variation

First of all make sure that Q3 and Q1 > 0, If the data says that a lot of data is 0, it can be said that we have a lot of freebies users, and why do we analyze user data whose price is 0 ?

For the pricing case, where Q3, Q1 > 0, and Q3 ≥ Q1, then 0 ≤ CQV < 1, with the following conditions:

  • If CQV = 0 indicating that Q3 = Q1. For all business cases, CQV close to 0 indicates that our data is not wide or that the distribution is converging at a point.

Therefore, for pricing case, CQV is close to 0 indicating that the price is getting less wide.

Disclaimer

  1. Q3 != 0 and Q1 != 0. If the case used is that the price and we found that: (1) Q3 = 0 then it is clear that Q1 will also be 0. These users love freebies! and 0/0 is undefined anyway. (2) Q1 = 0 then CQV = 1 and we will find it difficult to determine the deviation because there is the possibility of infinite Q3.
  2. CQV is unlikely to be > 1 because if so then Q1 is negative. For price cases, this is not possible unless discount rates are considered :p
  3. CQV is unlikely to be < -1 because if so then Q3 is negative, which is not possible in pricing case.

So ? Wdyt ? Do you have any business case that suit with this calculation? Comment yaa :D

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